Residual FP, Mortars, and Walls (Newbie)

[ATStatham]

This question refers to A8.2, A8.23, A8.26, B9.34, and C3.33 / C9.2

A Russian 447 is non-assault moving behind a wall and is first fired on by a German 50mm mortar. The wall forms part of the target hex (containing the 447) and LOS crosses the wall.

The mortar scores a hit and keeps rate.

I did resolve the next three cases correctly?

CASE 1: IFT attack on mortar hit: 50mm = 6 FP halfed for Area Type Target / Mortar fire = 3 FP rounded down to 2 FP. DRM = 0 (-1 FFNAM, +2 wall reduced to +1 by indirect fire). DR is 2,6 = 8+1 = 9. No Effect but mortar kept rate.

CASE 2: Residual Fire from IFT: Unless the mortar elects to give up ROF, then no residual FP is left in the hex.

CASE 3: Mortar elects to give up ROF to place residual FP: I said no FP is placed because 2 FP is halfed to 1 FP and then reduced to 0 FP because of the wall.

Did I get these Cases right? If not please point me to the right rules section cause I am confused.

Thanks

Alan

 

[Ole Boe]

CASE 1: IFT attack on mortar hit: 50mm = 6 FP halfed for Area Type Target / Mortar fire = 3 FP rounded down to 2 FP. DRM = 0 (-1 FFNAM, +2 wall reduced to +1 by indirect fire). DR is 2,6 = 8+1 = 9. No Effect but mortar kept rate.

Here you did several errors. The first was to round the FP down from 3 to 2 - you should use the IIFT instead :horse:

Seriously though, the -1 FFNAM should be applied on the To Hit roll and not on the IFT effects roll (C6.14, C.3), so the DRM was +1.

CASE 2: Residual Fire from IFT: Unless the mortar elects to give up ROF, then no residual FP is left in the hex.

Correct.

CASE 3: Mortar elects to give up ROF to place residual FP: I said no FP is placed because 2 FP is halfed to 1 FP and then reduced to 0 FP because of the wall.

Correct.

 

[da priest]

you should use the IIFT instead ..

Dear Mr. Boe,

I have deleted your horse, and we, the IFT Cabal, are watching you for any further transgressions. :ar15:

 

[ATStatham]

Here you did several errors. The first was to round the FP down from 3 to 2 - you should use the IIFT instead :horse:

Ole Boe,

Thanks for the reponse.

Please see the "newbie" tag on thread title. I am still trying to figure out the IFT all the way and why my opponent always seems to get better results on that table than I do. :-(

Seriously though, the -1 FFNAM should be applied on the To Hit roll and not on the IFT effects roll (C6.14, C.3), so the DRM was +1.

After posting and thinking about it some more - I realized that the -1 FFNAM should have been applied to the TH roll.

So the only modifier to the IFT DR is +1 for the wall?

 

[Reepicheep]

So the only modifier to the IFT DR is +1 for the wall?

Yes, that's correct.

 

[ATStatham]

Yes, that's correct.

Danke!

Alan