Pin and Backblast

[Velocette]

During solo (learning/self taught) played early this week, the following happened:

4-6-7 in a stone building makes PF check, rolls a 6, and Pins.

(Think I am good so far).

After additional MP expenditure by enemy AFV, another PF check is made, dr = 1. Got it!

(Good so far?)

I made a TH DR of 3 (cdr = 1), but I applied +2 TH DRM to avoid backblast (ie, I didn’t want to risk desperation).

While re-reading SK4 RB 4.4.3 (p.20), i noticed it said “unpinned” firers can elect to apply a +2 TH DRM or accept the consequences of backblast via cdr.

Should I have NOT allowed the +2 DRM on the TH DR? Or since the MMC can make 2 PF Checks while forgoing inherent FP, does the Pin apply after the 2nd FP check?

Thanks
Velo

 

[jrv]

During solo (learning/self taught) played early this week, the following happened:

4-6-7 in a stone building makes PF check, rolls a 6, and Pins.

(Think I am good so far).

After additional MP expenditure by enemy AFV, another PF check is made, dr = 1. Got it!

(Good so far?)

I made a TH DR of 3 (cdr = 1), but I applied +2 TH DRM to avoid backblast (ie, I didn’t want to risk desperation).

While re-reading SK4 RB 4.4.3 (p.20), i noticed it said “unpinned” firers can elect to apply a +2 TH DRM or accept the consequences of backblast via cdr.

Should I have NOT allowed the +2 DRM on the TH DR? Or since the MMC can make 2 PF Checks while forgoing inherent FP, does the Pin apply after the 2nd FP check?

The Pin applies immediately. Although a squad may make two PF checks, they are not considered "in parallel".

JR

 

[Velocette]

The Pin applies immediately. Although a squad may make two PF checks, they are not considered "in parallel".

JR

JRV,

That makes good sense - I over thought it.

Based on your response, i was wrong to let the pinned 4-6-7 apply the +2 TH DRM to avoid backblast. The cdr = 1 of the initial TH roll should have been applied to the 1 column of IFT. (Which would have ruined the 4-6-7 day I suppose; no QRDC handy).

Is that how I should a have played it?

Velo

 

[jrv]

That makes good sense - I over thought it.

I don't know that it makes sense. It's the way that the rules are.

Based on your response, i was wrong to let the pinned 4-6-7 apply the +2 TH DRM to avoid backblast. The cdr = 1 of the initial TH roll should have been applied to the 1 column of IFT. (Which would have ruined the 4-6-7 day I suppose; no QRDC handy).

Is that how I should a have played it?

Yes, that is how it should be played. A one on the one FP column is a K/1 result. Since a TH DR of 3 will hit in all but the rarest of circumstances, it's still a good trade: a halfsquad for a tank.

JR

 

[Velocette]

I don't know that it makes sense. It's the way that the



Yes, that is how it should be played. A one on the one FP column is a K/1 result. Since a TH DR of 3 will hit in all but the rarest of circumstances, it's still a good trade: a halfsquad for a tank.

JR

JRV,

Got it; quite clear now. The instantaneous Pin result was the key piece I was missing in my mind. I have played that incorrectly as well in other aspects of my SK learning journey, but crystal clear going forward.

Velo