Vic Provost
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I would say any battle post 1942 they had learned their lessons due to mass casualties in other failed Human Waves and would not do this unless they have an overwhelming numbers advantage and can simply boll the defenders over. Combined arms is way more efficient, the Russian Army in 43-45 understood this up to the Germans ultimate defeat.Would it be historically correct to deny the Russians the ability in certain battles to conduct a Human Wave (A25.23)?
If so, when? If not, why not?
I'm thinking that certain battles, or certain Russian units wouldn't use a Human Wave attack possibly due to: 1) lack of manpower, 2) elite status of unit
What say you?
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