First Fire Inherent vs SW

[Kijug]

I’m suddenly mixed with logic vs rules...don’t ask why. Ha!

Comments on these situations/actions:

1) During the German MPh, an American 6-6-6 possessing an MMG First Fires the MMG (only) at a moving German unit (no ROF). The MMG is marked with a First Fire counter (A8.1).

During the ensuing Defensive Fire Phase:

2a) The 6-6-6 Final Fires full Inherent FP at a German unit in Normal LOS, or,
2b) The 6-6-6 Final Fires full Inherent FP (PBF) + MMG FP (Area Fire) at a German unit in ADJACENT LOS, or,
2c) The 6-6-6 uses its Inherent FP "action" (2nd SW usage) to Self-Destruct the MMG.

3) Now, assume the American 6-6-6 fired its Inherent FP + MMG at a moving German unit and both the 6-6-6 and MMG are marked with a First Fire counter. During the ensuing DFPh, the 6-6-6 could Self-Destruct the MMG as Final Fire action but only if there was a German unit ADJACENT to the 6-6-6. Even though the 6-6-6 wants to Self-Destruct the MMG, he can only do it if there is a German unit ADJACENT (I know, seems silly). Correct?

Rules references:

A7.93: "A unit/inherent crew may malfunction/destroy only as many weapons as it could fire were it not engaged in their malfunction/destruction.”

A8.4: "...During Final Fire any of the DEFENDER's units/weapons that are not marked with a First, Final, Intensive, or No Fire counter may fire. Any such units/weapons that are marked with a First Fire counter may also fire again (by flipping their First Fire marker over to the Final Fire side), but as Area Fire and only at units in an adjacent (or same) hex,...”

 

[jrv]

1 ok
2a ok
2b ok
2c In order to destroy the SW, the squad would have to be eligible to fire it. That would require an adjacent enemy unit. I don't think you can apply second SW use to a SW that has already been used. Otherwise if you had only used the SW and not the squad's inherent you could fire the SW in DFPh against a non-adjacent target, and I don't think that is the intention. You can't, for instance, fire an ATR a second time using the second SW capability with the same ATR.
3 Basically the same as 2c except that now the squad too requires an adjacent target to be able to fire.

JR

 

[A_T_Great]

I believe that the MMC dosn't use his second support weapon usage in order to self destruct the MMG. The 6-6-6 being a squad could fire two MGs as first fire no (ROF) Then provided an enemy unit is adjacent, could self destruct both of them in the Final Fire phase. During this entire period, the MMC itself would be of course unable to fire it's inherent FP. If the MMC possessed more than two SW, it could still only destroy two and that would be it's two SW uses for that turn.

 

[Russ Isaia]

1 ok
2a ok
2b ok
2c In order to destroy the SW, the squad would have to be eligible to fire it. That would require an adjacent enemy unit. I don't think you can apply second SW use to a SW that has already been used. Otherwise if you had only used the SW and not the squad's inherent you could fire the SW in DFPh against a non-adjacent target, and I don't think that is the intention. You can't, for instance, fire an ATR a second time using the second SW capability with the same ATR.
3 Basically the same as 2c except that now the squad too requires an adjacent target to be able to fire.

JR

Am I correct that the response to 2b would be "ok, but the MMG would fire PBF as well as Area Fire?"

 

[Russ Isaia]

Also, here is a relevant Q&A:

A9.73. Can a unit marked with a First Fire counter destroy a MG during DFPh if there is an adjacent enemy unit? If there is no adjacent enemy unit?

A. Yes. No. [J1; Mw]

Not quite the case at hand as the Q is not that the MG had First Fired, but that the possessing unit had first fired (and presumably the MG had not). But as the Rule implies both the weapon and the possessing unit must be eligible to fire, the answer should be the same.

 

[jrv]

Am I correct that the response to 2b would be "ok, but the MMG would fire PBF as well as Area Fire?"

Yes, both the inherent and the MG would qualify for PBF.

JR